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Re: [b-hebrew] why?

From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
To: "R.Lehmann" <lehmann AT uni-mainz.de>
Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] why?
Date: Fri, 2 Jul 2010 17:17:00 +0200

Concerning noun "yesha', salvation (Ps 20:7) and noun "zera'", seed (Gn
47:23), a student asks why the first has tsere in the first syllable while
the
latter has segol.

What good reason could we give him for this difference? Maybe the presence
of resh in "zera'" would be a sufficient reason?

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)

Re: [b-hebrew] why?, Pere Porta, 07/02/2010
- Re: [b-hebrew] why?, Yitzhak Sapir, 07/02/2010
  - Re: [b-hebrew] why?, Pere Porta, 07/02/2010
    - Re: [b-hebrew] why?, Donald R. Vance, Ph.D., 07/02/2010
      - Re: [b-hebrew] why?, Yitzhak Sapir, 07/03/2010
        
        Message not available
        
        Re: [b-hebrew] why?, Yitzhak Sapir, 07/03/2010
        
        Re: [b-hebrew] why?, Isaac Fried, 07/04/2010