Biblical Hebrew Forum

[davedonnelly1 <davedonnelly1 AT juno.com>]

Hi Richard,

Strongs Concordance lists Hebrew Word #1943 as [heh-holem-vav-qamets-heh]
hovah , ho-vaw;
another form for 1942; ruin-mischief .

Try a Google search for "Hebrew Word Hovah Howah"

Dave Donnelly
_________________________________________________________________________
_____
Richard aaa at endlyss.com 
Sat Mar 6 01:08:19 EST 2010  wrote:

>>>
There is something that keeps popping up now and then. 
That is, that the Massoretes changed the vowels of the tetragrammaton so
that to pronounce the name would be to curse YHWH. 
Something about hovah meaning destruction.
I seriously doubt this because then they would be guilty of causing
others to sin greatly in ignorance. They would be purposely digging a pit
for the
unsuspecting to fall into.
Has anyone else heard such a thing and is there truth to this? 
This sounds like a rumor that needs to be debunked. 
Or if there is truth to it it would not be evil motives of the
Massoretes. I have not heard anything of the kind on this list so far.
Richard Conaway
>>>
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>From kwrandolph AT gmail.com  Sat Mar  6 12:28:18 2010
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Date: Sat, 6 Mar 2010 09:28:16 -0800
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From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Must IAOUE represent 3+ syllables?
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Garth:

What you have demonstrated is that =E2=80=9CYahweh=E2=80=9D can be derived =
from late
(emphasize the =E2=80=98late=E2=80=99) pronunciations of both Hebrew and Ko=
in=C3=A9 Greek. But
what were the original pronunciations of both languages? Why would a first
century speaker of Koin=C3=A9 Greek have carefully spelled out =E2=80=98ou=
=E2=80=99 if it were
not a diphthong and not pronounced the same as =E2=80=98u=E2=80=99 as moder=
n readers of
Koin=C3=A9 Greek pronounce it?

On Sat, Mar 6, 2010 at 7:05 AM, Garth Grenache <garthgrenache AT hotmail.com>w=
rote:

>
> Dear all,
>
> Must IAOUE represent 3+ syllables?
>
> =E2=80=A6
> Evidence that Greek -OUE could represent a single syllable, -w(e):
>
>  *Greek OUAU transliterates waw in Psalm 118:41.
>

There is no Psalm 118:41.


>  *Greek AOUE transliterates 'ah(a)wa in Ezra 8:21&31.
>

Again, what was the original pronunciation, not the late pronunciation that
was preserved? This word could have had four syllables.


>  *Greek THEKOUE transliterates Tiqwah in 2Ki 22:14 & Ezr 10:15.
>

Again late pronunciations. Putting dashes between what was heard, we could
get the-ko-ue even for a late pronunciation. Even making the assumption tha=
t
=E2=80=98ou=E2=80=99 is a single sound, it still was a syllable separate fr=
om the =E2=80=98e=E2=80=99 that
followed. The pronunciation for the Hebrew that you give is modern.


> =E2=80=A6
>
> The above list evidences that Greek digraph OU is used to transliterate
> 'w'.
>

Only in late documents, we still don=E2=80=99t know the original. Or more
accurately, I see these as evidences against your argument.

>
> Kind regards,
> Garth Grenache.
>
> Again I repeat that your arguments are based on speculation built upon
speculation, a castle in the sky as another writer put it, that needs
implausible presuppositions in order to be true. Absent those
presuppositions, your whole argument falls down.

Karl W. Randolph.