Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

John:

The question you are asking is primarily lexicographic, not grammar. Its
answer is to be found in other verses that include the same term, and
comparing the uses.

Unfortunately, for your purposes, this term is used only twice, with the
result that we can’t make as certain a statement as to its meaning as we
wish.

As for Deuteronomy 22:11, it can be taken as an example, based on the
definition of שעטנז $(+NZ. Its other use in Leviticus 19:19 hints at a wider
definition, hence in this verse “wool and linen” is an example.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Sun, Feb 28, 2010 at 4:26 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com> wrote:

> Hey everyone, this is a *bump* on the thread - as I still haven't
> received a question to my answer.
>
> In Deut 22:11 it states:
> <LO) TIL:B.A$ $A75(A+:N"Z CEMER W.PI$:T.IYM YAX:D.FW00>
> "You shall not wear Shatnez, wool and linen together."
>
> Does the grammar of the phrase "wool and linen" demonstrate it to be a
> definition or an example. I am looking for grammatical proof for with
> interpretation.
>
> Thanks in advance.
>
>
>
> B"H
> John Steven
>