Biblical Hebrew Forum

[James Christian <jc.bhebrew AT googlemail.com>]

It is possible. But the evidence I've seen seems to show that there are
clearly periods when Egypt's Kings were called exactly that and later became
known as Pharaoh. This would seem to have its implications. Of course though
you are undoubtedly right. The author's concern is not in identifying the
Pharaoh. This is a non issue. It equally struck me as interesting that later
on Edom's King is also not named.

James Christian

2010/2/17 George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>

> ...or the authors of the Genesis and Exodus narratives really didn't care
> who exactly the respective Pharaohs were, because their aim in writing was
> not to identify the Egyptian monarchs, but rather to convey the story of
> Israel's roots as a Yahwistic community. That is, whether the Pharaoh's name
> was Ankhimosamunrethothbeshotephirmaatsatetkhnumanubisanuket or Fred was of
> absolutely no concern to them.
>
> Just putting that out there as a meagre possibility.
>
> GEORGE ATHAS
> Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
> www.moore.edu.au
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