Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

 (PT)

> <provocation>
> And now, tell me, why there is no dagesh with the interrogative particle
> ;-)
> </provocation>
>
> (Yes, I'm talking about the fact that the arabic interrogative particle
> is "hal", هل  ...)
>
> _________
>
(PP)
Petr,
Maybe you should better ask:
"Why is there a dagesh with the article?"
Indeed, many patterns have a 'he' prefixed and no dagesh is put into the
consonant that comes after it.
(Under this respect, the article and also some Niph'al forms make an
especial case)

For instance,

1. Most -or all?- Hiph'il forms, as in HGLH (2Ki 17:11)
2. Hophal forms, as in HPQD (Jr 6:6)

Now, please, a "provocation" (a quite hearty one, of course!) for you:

Why these Niph'al forms having 'he' at their beginning put dagesh into the
consonant after it? Samples in Gn 21:8; Ex 22:3; Gn 31:24...

Regards.

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)


> --
> Petr Tomasek <http://www.etf.cuni.cz/~tomasek>
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-- 
Pere Porta
"Ei nekrói ouk eguéirontai, fágomen kai píomen áurion gar apothnéskomen"
(1Cor 15:32)