Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

>
>
> (PT)
> I don't see any reason why should one translate יַעֲשֶׂה in Rt 1:17 as
> hifʿīl.
>

(PP)
Yes, you're right. It is Qal.
But I'm right concerning verb (LH

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)

>
> > The same could be said of verb (LH, go up ---> compare Gn 2:6 with Lv
> 17:8
> >
> > 1. Given the identity of forms (Qal = Hiphil) for this type of verb, time
> > and person.... are there any clues, is there any device  -besides the
> > context, of course- to surely know where/when it is Qal and where/when it
> is
> > Hiphil?
>
> No
>
> > 2. Is context the ONLY way to know it?
>
> Yes. (More precisely: if there are no clues, that it should be the more
> complicated form, i.e. hifʿīl, one should translate it as the more simple
> one,
> i.e. qal)
>
> > 3. Are there other verb types having a quite identical form for the Qal
> > Imperfect and the Hiphil Imperfect? If yes, which they are (which verb
> > type/s, which time/s and/or which person/s)?
>
> E.g. ע״י verbs.
>
> > Regards,
> >
> > Pere Porta
> > (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
>
> --
> Petr Tomasek <http://www.etf.cuni.cz/~tomasek>
> Jabber: butrus AT jabbim.cz
> SIP: butrus AT ekiga.net
>



-- 
Pere Porta
"Ei nekrói ouk eguéirontai, fágomen kai píomen áurion gar apothnéskomen"
(1Cor 15:32)