Biblical Hebrew Forum

[dwashbur AT nyx.net]

On 27 Oct 2009 at 8:04, Yigal Levin wrote:

> I disagree with Karl for two reasons. First, the context of Isaiah
> 19:18
> makes it clear that he envisioned a victory of Yahweh over Egypt.
> Clearly,
> this makes "Sefat Kena'an" the same as "Yehudit" - what we call
> Hebrew.

But if so, why say "Sephat Kena`an" rather than "Sephat Yehuda"?  Judah is 
mentioned in 
the previous verse, so it would be natural if he's saying Egypt will be 
speaking the language 
spoken in Judah, to say "the language of Judah."  How do you explain this?

Note that I'm not necessarily agreeing with Karl that it meant Aramaic, but 
I'm not convinced 
that it meant Hebrew, either.

Dave Washburn

http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur