Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Petr Tomasek <tomasek AT etf.cuni.cz>]

On Thu, Sep 03, 2009 at 05:35:27PM +0800, Kokkee Ng wrote:
> Why is there a dagesh in $FM in Exodus 17:6 (BHS)?
> 
> Kokkee Ng
> 

It's a so-called "deḥīq". See   Israel Yeivin. Introduction to the Tiberian 
Masorah. Scholars Press, SBL, IOMS, 1980. §403nn, p. 289nn:

"If a word with a conjuctive accent ends with an open syllabe pointed with
qameṣ or segol, and the following word is stressed  on its first syllable,
(that is on the first full vowel, whether or not it is preceeded by shewa),
then the first consonant of the second word may take "conjuctive dagesh".
In the Masora this phenomenon is called deḥiq or ate meraḥiq..."

P.T.

-- 
Petr Tomasek <http://www.etf.cuni.cz/~tomasek>
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