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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] How does biblical Hebrew describe a past event?

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  • From: David Kummerow <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] How does biblical Hebrew describe a past event?
  • Date: Thu, 25 Jun 2009 19:59:46 +1000


Gday Randall,

You know, I'm actually quite partial to such an approach as you outline below. It is quite compatible with semantic mapping methodology as utilised in typology. At the end of the day, our attempt is to describe the functions of the verbal system and how the different forms carved up the applicable TAM "semantic space" (to use Croft's term).

Regards,
David Kummerow.


vayyixtov David
>Some shift has indeed occurred, whether this be
>seen as aspect-prominent with some move to tense (as per Cook), or
>tense-prominent with not a complete move to tense (as I see).

Or, as I see, making a statement
likely to be misinterpreted etymologically
by students and even scholars.

In a language with fully grammaticalized, multi-person subject
concord, but with only two TAM categories for a three-dimensional
reality, (predicting at least six opposition items), Saussure thru
Bickerton would predict that the two category system would be used
for all three TAM parameters, no matter what the etymology.

The problem with labels like 'aspect-prominent' and 'tense-prominent',
useful when they not able to be misapplied by actual speakers,
is that people reading dead languages tend to think etymologically
and say non-functional things like 'but it is "really" only marking
--X--, (X being the item they call "prominent"). That is an example
of the etymological fallacy, that is, that a verb means
whatever it meant in an earlier system. And if that earlier system
was likewise under-differentiated, then it too would likely
be misrepresented, something I see with Bauer's non-system
system from 1910 (if memory serves).

Randall Buth





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