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  • From: James Read <J.Read-2 AT sms.ed.ac.uk>
  • To: Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Origin of the Phillistines
  • Date: Thu, 04 Jun 2009 23:53:50 +0100

Hi Yitzhak,

Genesis 10 tells us about the Philistines that came out from Mizraim. This is clearly talking about the origins of those indigenous to the area of Philistia.

Why would later writers call them anything else just because they've been conquered by a bunch of Myceneans? (WARNING: my spelling is atrocious). Did the Judeans become Babylonians when they were conquered?

James Christian


Quoting Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>:

On Thu, Jun 4, 2009 at 10:54 PM, James Read wrote:
Hi Yitzhak,

I've been reading your response over and over again and the only things I
can conclude from it are one of the following:

1) You hold the Philistines to be indigenous with no invasion ever occurring
2) You hold that the Philistines invaded and settled an uninhabited land

Which of these two is it?

Hi, James.

Reading my response once would have been enough :)
I don't think that those are the necessarily only two possibilities nor am I
committed to any particular possibility.

How about you tell me, how do you figure that there were indigenous Philistines
separate from non indigenous Philistines (as apparently you do from your
questions)?

Yitzhak Sapir
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