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  • From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] $XR = black?
  • Date: Wed, 25 Mar 2009 23:16:42 +0800

Jim:

On Wed, Mar 25, 2009 at 9:54 PM, <JimStinehart AT aol.com> wrote:

> Karl:
>
>
>
> You wrote: “I can’t remember off the top of my head any time that $XR
> specifically refers to “black”. It refers to darkness, such as just before
> dawn, which is said to ascend like a blanket from the land when the light
> appears, but I can’t remember any time that it refers to “black”.”
>
>
>
> A. Lexicons
>
>
I asked where in the Tanakh, not what some “experts” say.

>
>
> B. Translations of Job 30: 30
>
>
The same thing applies to translations. By the way, n-o-n-e of the
translations is accurate to the text as written. Admittedly, it is a
difficult text to understand, made possibly more difficult by the fact that
the words may not be properly understood.


> C. Translations of Leviticus 13: 31, 37
>
>
What about translations? I don’t trust any.

Secondly, not everyone has black hair. What about those with red hair,
blond, or their hair has whitened with age? To insist that “black” is
correct makes this text nonsense.

Again, the question is what is the meaning of the root $XR, which is not
necessarily “black”.

D. Summary
>
>
>
> Can all the lexicons, and all the translations, be wrong in viewing $XR at
> Job 30: 30 and at Leviticus 13: 31, 37 as meaning “black”?
>
>
Yes. Such things have happened in the past, and not necessarily in
connection with Hebrew language, rather in all fields of study. You have to
leave that open as a possibility.


> If you want, we could go on to review $XR as meaning “black” at Song of
> Songs 1: 5;
>
>
Not this verse as a proof text, as it can be understood as looked for, and
fit the text as written.


> 5: 11, and Zecariah 6: 2, 6.
>
>
Again “dark”, you might be close here.


> The problem only comes in, you see, when the Bible appears to refer to
> Egypt as “Black”.
>
>
Not at all. You are reading into the text what is not necessarily there.


> No Western scholar will permit that.
>
>
Be consistent. Either they are accurate, which is your argument against my
question, or they aren’t. You are picking and choosing when you assume they
are accurate.


> No Western scholar can stand the thought that the Bible might ever refer
> to Egypt by referencing the fertile, “black” earth along the Nile River in
> Egypt, calling Egypt “Black”, just as the Egyptians called their own
> country “Black”/Kemet. That is the reason why HALOT makes the absurd claim
> that $XR at Isaiah 23: 3 is not a Hebrew word at all, but rather is an
> E-g-y-p-t-i-a-n phrase meaning “pond of Horus”. No way!
>
>
The last I looked, I’m Western. But the context is that of Tyre where there
is no need to consider Egypt as a possible understanding of this verse.

>
> Jim Stinehart
>
> Evanston, Illinois
>
>
Karl W. Randolph.




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