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  • From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • To: Gabe Eisenstein <gabe AT cascadeaccess.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] pelesheth hithro'a'i
  • Date: Mon, 7 Jul 2008 12:39:04 -0400

Gabe,

The decision about the root of HITRO(A(I of Psalms 60:8, if it is of the RU( kind or the R(( kind, is made by the translators, methinks, post factum, after the meaning of the word has been surmised. I consider RU( being a mitigated RUC, and R(( a mitigated RCC. The existence of the letter R in the root refers it to a material state of aggregation of dispersion, for better of for worse. Thus, TRU(-AH is the vibration of the air and the dispersion of the sound, RA( is 'flimsy, frail, insubstantial, lacking solidity or strength', or even 'crashed' as in Psalms 2:9, R(-UT is 'a loose relationship or friendship between free people', and R(-YON is an ephemeral idea sloshing in the mind.
I think that the poet likens himself here to a rock on which PLE$ET is invited to crash itself. In other words, the poet is saying "PLE $ET, have a crush on me."

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Jul 3, 2008, at 6:45 PM, Gabe Eisenstein wrote:

Well I had so much fun with yorenu that I'm going to ask for help with
another word in a Biblical quotation from Sanhedrin 105a. The word is
hithro'a'i (hay-taf-resh-ayin-ayin-yud), found in Psalms 60:8. The
translations go in two directions:

1) God is helping David defeat the Philistines, along with the Moabites
and others mentioned in the verse. These translations make pelesheth
(the word before hithro'a'i) the object of the verb, as in "Over
Philisita I shout in triumph".

2) For some strange reason God is helping the Philistines. These
translations make pelesheth the subject of the verb, as in "Philistia,
triumph thou because of me".

Why God would help the Philistines is unexplained, and the reading would
have no contextual support, except that the Talmudic text portrays David
taking offense at the verse, citing his enmity toward Philistines. This
only seems to make sense under the second reading. Commentators say that
the following line, where God says "it is my duty to make them friends
with each other", refers to David becoming friends with Doeg and
Ahitophel. But this seems contorted to me. It seems more straightforward
to think that it is David and the Philistines who must be made friends here.

Maybe this time we can stick to the grammar without arguing my perhaps
idiosyncratic interpretation. Or maybe not.

thanks,
Gabe Eisenstein

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