Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Kevin Riley" <klriley AT alphalink.com.au>]

I think if it is to be used to argue for such a use in Biblical Hebrew, you
really need to find examples from the ANE, dating to before about C6th BCE,
for it to have any hope of being convincing.  
 

Kevin Riley
 
-------Original Message------- 
 
From: pporta AT oham.net 
Date: 14/04/2008 3:52:23 PM 
 
Do you mean something like: 
 
1. In Latin (for instance, when the Pope speaks or writes in Latin): Nos for

Ego 
2. In Spanish (mainly in ancient times): Nos, el Rey (We, the King) for Yo, 
El Rey (I, the King)? 
 
If yes, could the noun dealt with in www.oham.net/out/S-t/S-t1163.html be a 
Clear case of this majestatic plural? 
 
Pere Porta 
 
 .