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  • From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • To: JimStinehart AT aol.com
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] "Sary" vs. "sary"
  • Date: Fri, 21 Mar 2008 10:16:53 -0400

Jim,

I want to repeat what I have already said before about some aspects of your analysis of the patriarchal narrative.
1. It could be a grave mistake to consider a, context-less, Hebrew name as a grammatically structured Hebrew word. In a Hebrew word the opening and closing letters YTN may be radical or they may be personal pronouns. Thinking of SARAH as being 'a princess' may be no more than an appealing homiletic interpretation of a dear name.
2. I suspect that (all?) names in the patriarchal narrative are names of foreign gods bestowed upon children by their fathers, mothers or nurses, steeped in idol worship, starting with the first patriarch AB- RAM [compare Arabic RAM-ADAN]. The name SaRay may well be but a variant of the names a$eR, a$eRah [See 2 Kings 21:7], a$toReth [see Judges 10:6], and eSteR, the queen. I would go even farther in saying that the S in all these names stands for )I$ or )E$, 'fire', and R for )OR 'light'. It is possible that the $ of KMO$, the god of Moab [see 1 Kings 11:17] is this same )I$ or )E$.
The addition of H to the names of both the first patriarch and first matriarch was intended, methinks, to give them a YHWH-ic component.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Mar 21, 2008, at 9:56 AM, JimStinehart AT aol.com wrote:


Pere Porta:

You make many good points. Yet almost all of what you say seems to me to be
based on the medieval pointing that was done to the text in the Middle Ages,
as opposed to the Hebrew letters that were in the Bible in ancient times.

1. You make the fascinating point that “princes” at Isaiah 10: 8 is pointed
the same as Sarah’s birth name.

You then state: “So, from a strict literal viewpoint "Saray" or "Sarai"
means "my princes" (and not "my princess") -- a single letter s versus a double
ss. It is just
the fourth word in Is 10:8.”

If Isaiah 10: 8 is referring to divine figures, or is speaking
metaphorically, as appears to be the case, then I could accept there the translation “prince”
in the singular, which is “princes” in the plural at Isaiah 10: 8. Perhaps
you agree with me that there is no “princess” here at all.

But at Genesis 12: 15 and 47: 6, I do not like a translation of “prince” or “
princes”, because there the references are to high officials (top men under
Pharaoh), not to a king or to sons of a king.

2. You wrote: “The "sary" of Pharaoh are not "sary" but "sarEy". Why do
you take no account of the vowels?”

I believe that there you are referencing the medieval pointing. The word “
sary” at Genesis 12: 15 was pointed differently in medieval times than the name “
Sary” at Genesis 12: 11. Yet in the original text, which had no pointing,
these two words are identical, as far as I can see. Both words are
sin-resh-yod, nothing else.

3. You wrote: “"sary" (as you spell it) is a plural construct... "sary" is
not essentially different from "sarim".”

That may well be. Yet what one sees at Genesis 12: 15 in unpointed text is
sin-resh-yod, and those sin-resh-yod are dealing with sin-resh- yod. That is to
say, Pharaoh’s top officials, sin-resh-yod, are recommending to Pharaoh that
sin-resh-yod, being the birth name of Abraham’s wife, be taken into Pharaoh’s
household.

The Hebrew letters in the original text are identical. That’s my point.

4. You wrote: “Now, the name of Abraham's wife is "Saray" or "Sarai" and
not “Sary.”

I believe that, once again, you are basing that statement on the medieval
pointing. Many scholars have stated that the medieval pointing is often
unreliable.

If you ignore the medieval pointing, what would lead you to say that “the
name of Abraham's wife is "Saray" or "Sarai" and not “Sary”? All I see in
unpointed text is sin-resh-yod, nothing else.

5. You wrote: “Sincerely, I think you are not on the good path at making
this kind of
wordplays...”

Perhaps the fact that these two very different words have identical spellings
is a mere coincidence here. But you must remember that there is more clever
Hebrew wordplay in the Patriarchal narratives than in virtually any other
Hebrew composition ever done.

Sary are dealing with Sary at Genesis 12: 15. Perhaps that’s a mere
coincidence. But perhaps not.

Perhaps the author of the Patriarchal narratives is deliberately trying to
emphasize there that Abraham’s wife is as strong-willed and determined as are a
king’s top officials. Sary is as strong-willed and determined as sary. Sary
acts like sary.

To me it makes sense. But I’m here to learn, like everyone else.

6. I myself do not see the names “Sary” and “Sarah” as having an identical
meaning, with the only difference being that “Sary” has an archaic feminine
ending, whereas “Sarah” has a regular feminine ending. I believe that is the
way scholars explain these two names. Scholars also often claim, in my view
completely erroneously, that both of those names mean “princess”. Sarah was
never a princess. That would not be a fitting name for Sarah, who was not the
daughter of a king or anything like that. I myself do not see either “Sary”
or “Sarah” as meaning “princess”.

I view Genesis 12: 15 as being one key clue as to what Sarah’s birth name
means. Sary deal with Sary at Genesis 12: 15. To me, that is intended to make
us realize that Abraham’s wife Sary will act in as strong-willed and determined
manner as do sary: top officials of a king. This is a positive and fitting
name for an assertive, righteous woman like Abraham’s wife, who is one of the
most appealing women in all of mankind’s accounts of women. I do not think
that Sarah’s birth name has anything at all to do with the concept of being a “
princess”. Rather, I see Genesis 12: 15 as deliberately being a key clue to
what Sarah’s birth name means.

Sary deal with Sary at Genesis 12: 15. Sary is as assertive as sary. That’s
the clever, meaningful Hebrew wordplay I am seeing here.

Jim Stinehart
Evanston, Illinois




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