Biblical Hebrew Forum

["ג'ייסון הייר" <jaihare AT gmail.com>]

Dear Charles,

I had never noticed this וֹ so I'm glad that you pointed this out. I don't
think it's normally translated, and I can't comment on whether you *can*
have a pronominal suffix in that position. I will just say that it's not the
common way to find it written. Notice how Onkelos translates this passage
into Aramaic:

וַאֲמַר יְיָ תַּפֵּק אַרְעָא נַפְשָׁא חַיְתָא לִזְנַהּ בְּעִיר וּרְחֵשׁ
וְחֵוַת אַרְעָא לִזְנַהּ וַהֲוָה כֵן׃
W)MR YY TPQ )R() NP$) XYT) LZNH. B(YR WRX$ WXWT )R() LZNH. WHWH KN:

He used the phrase חות ארעא, which also left the holem-vav untranslated. I
don't know what it's function is. Rashi doesn't comment on the form. Maybe
someone else has an answer. It's an interesting question.

Thanks,
Jason Hare
English Teacher - Wall Street Institute
Rishon LeZion
Israel

On 10/30/07, Charles Grebe <cgrebe AT briercrest.ca> wrote:
>
> Hi,
>
> I have a quick question about the phrase WXYTWo-)RC in Genesis 1:24. I'm
> not sure what to do with the holem waw. It appears to be a pronominal
> suffix on the noun "chaya" which is part of a construct chain with
> "eretz." Can you have a pronominal suffix in the middle of a contruct
> chain like this? If so, or if not for that matter, how would you
> translate this?
>
> Thanks,
> Charles Grebe
> Briercrest Distance Learning
>
>
>
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