Biblical Hebrew Forum

[La Fanga <lafanga144 AT yahoo.com>]

I've heard that the word mechalal in Isaiah 53:5 can means pierced based on 
the Arabic cognate khalal which can mean to pierce/perforate/skewer.  How 
correct is it to carry over the Arabic meaning of a homonymic word into 
Hebrew?  I know that Arabic often helps us to understand archaic Hebrew words 
however I also know that not all words that sound alike are the same. Do the 
two words derive from the same semitic root so that it can be said they are 
the same in meaning? I checked an Arabic concordance and while the Arabic 
khalal can have a myraid of different meanings, the word seems to be used 
commonly in the sense of spoiling, corrupting, or other degeneration similar 
to the primary meaning of the Hebrew. So is it linguistically possible for 
mechalal to mean pierced as some claim? Thanks.
       
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>From pporta AT oham.net  Wed Sep  5 12:09:32 2007
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Cc: b-hebrew Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Is it root consonant?
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In YWOD"(A (Rt 3:11), it is clear that Y is root consonant.
But, what about YWCAR, last word in Isa 54:17?
Is here the yod a root consonant too?

This question is intended not as a bizantine one but in order to make clear 
where to put this type of word (YWCAR)  in the Hebrew Schemary I'm working 
to build up.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Spain)