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  • From: Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] final alef
  • Date: Sat, 18 Aug 2007 15:37:14 -0700 (PDT)

As to the relationship between the two homonyms LO (lamed aleph -
"NO"), and LO (lamed waw -- "TO HIM"), here again it pays to consult
Arabic , because, like in so many other cases, it preserves earlier stages
of the language. The spelling of "NO" in Ar.-- "LA," is the equivalent
of the
Heb.lamed aleph, while the spelling of "TO HIM" is --LaHW pronounced
"Lahu". Obviously the "H" was dropped by the time of the consonsntal text
of the HB.


Interestingly the same occurs in some spoken Arabic dialects.

Uri Hurwitz



Yigal Levin wrote:

I tend to agree - the aleph is there because it was

meant to be pronounced as a gluttal stop (not as a

"silent letter"). From both the Bible and especially

inscriptions, it would seem that the mater lectionis

that was used for the final "O" (once these entered

Hebrew orthography) was actually he (as preserved

in names such as "Shiloh" and "Shelomoh"). Also,

what's the relationship between l) (lamed aleph)

and l)w (lamed aleph waw)? Is the former an

abbreviation of the latter? Or was l) spelt with

an aleph to distinguish it from its homonym lw

(lamed waw) - "for/to him"?




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>From if AT math.bu.edu Sat Aug 18 19:28:09 2007
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From: "Isaac Fried" <if AT math.bu.edu>
To: "Petr Tomasek" <tomasek AT etf.cuni.cz>,
<b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] final alef
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Peter,



Don’t forget that “gemination” is the specialty of people with extra
time
upon their hands to emphatically flair their throat, flail their tongue and
flutter their lips.



Isaac Fried, Boston University

----- Original Message -----
From: "Petr Tomasek" <tomasek AT etf.cuni.cz>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, August 18, 2007 9:29 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] final alef


> On Fri, Aug 17, 2007 at 10:48:07AM -0700, Uri Hurwitz wrote:
>> Well, it depends how far back one wishes to go in time when the
>> consonantal spelling started. The assumption that those who put down an
>> Aleph indicated something they heard is defintely tenable.
>>
>> Let's take as an example the Heb. 'he' or 'she', "Hu)" "Hy)", in
>> both cases the Alephs are silent. Now, the Arabic for these is"hua" and
>> "hiya" , in both cases there is a final wovel; vestiges of this ancient
>> pronounciation is represented in the biblical Alephs.
>>
>> It may be interesting to note that in modern Heb. speech the Aleph in
>> the negation "LO"
>> is of course silent. However when this is used emphatically as "No!"
>> the Aleph often becomes a gluttal stop, and can be heard as such, though
>> native speakers are hardly aware of it. How about this, Yigal?
>
> But isn't this possibly an influence of arabic? The written arabic
> has regularly forms like "badaʾtu", or even hamza at the end of a word...
>
> BTW, one will find more such irregularities in the modern hebrew,
> e.g. a geminated "f" (and not "p") in יפה ("jaffē").
>
>> Uri Hurwitz At present
>> Wilmington, VT
>
> --
> Petr Tomasek <http://www.etf.cuni.cz/~tomasek>
> Jabber: butrus AT jabbim.cz
> SIP: butrus AT ekiga.net (725514 AT ekiga.net)
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