Biblical Hebrew Forum

["kenneth greifer" <greifer AT hotmail.com>]

If a woman had some children, and then became infertile, would she still be 
called "barren"? I thought barren meant that the person never had children, 
so saying she was barren and did not give birth before in Judges 13:2-3 was 
an unnecessary repetition. I did not think about the possibility that a 
barren person could have already had children.

Kenneth Greifer

> From: Tory Thorpe <torythrp AT yahoo.com>
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> CC: kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com>
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] two quotes like Genesis 24:16
> Date: Wed, 1 Aug 2007 12:33:00 -0700 (PDT)
>
> Infertility in women can happen after they've had
> children, long before menopause: can be caused by
> urinary infection. Judges 13:2, "his wife was barren
> and did not give birth...," makes clear that the woman
> has never given birth to any children.
>
> Tory Thorpe
>
>
> --- kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> > Has anyone pointed out these two quotes that are
> > like Genesis 24:16 "...a
> > virgin and she did not know a man" ? Judges 13:2
> > says "his wife was barren
> > and did not give birth..." and Judges 13:3 "you are
> > barren and did not give
> > birth". These quotes also seem to unnecessarily
> > repeat that she did not give
> > birth after saying she was barren.
> >
> > Sincerely,
> >
> > Kenneth Greifer
> >
> >
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