Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>]

According to the theory described by Anson Rainey, the word ybdyl in Deut
4:41, should have been spelled with a tsere and no yod, the preterite form.

I had suggested recourse to the Samaritan Pentateuch as a text that could
throw light on this issue.

The following is the Samaritan Pentateuch for the word:
TOC http://rosetta.reltech.org/cgi-bin/Ebind2html/TC/vonGall
Lev 1:17 http://rosetta.reltech.org/cgi-bin/Ebind2html/TC/vonGall?seq=321
Lev 5:8 http://rosetta.reltech.org/cgi-bin/Ebind2html/TC/vonGall?seq=326
Deut 4:41 http://rosetta.reltech.org/cgi-bin/Ebind2html/TC/vonGall?seq=486

> From the looks of it, it seems that most SP texts do differentiate the two Lev
verses from Deut.  That is, the first apparatus lists the word ybdyl in Lev as
omitting the 2nd yodh only in one manuscript in each of the two instances but
lists it with omission of the second yodh in many manuscripts in Deut.  The
second apparatus appears to show vocalization, and it seems that the vowel
for Deut is a line and for Lev is a dot (hirik?).  For Lev 5:8, the
one manuscript
that apparently reads ybdl (F) has a dot rather than the line that it
has in Deut.
It appears to me therefore that I am correct in suggesting that Deut has a
different verb form that was probably originally spelled without a yodh, and 
in
any case, was originally vocalized differently than the instances in Lev.
However, as I do not understand German, I would appreciate any comments
or additional help in interpreting the apparatus.

Yitzhak Sapir