Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Harold Holmyard <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Gary,
>             The Jewish Study Bible says the past tense verbs in Isaiah 9:6
> (actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew text) could be an example of a "prophetic
> past."  That is, the verse is actually a future messianic prophecy and the
> verbs are in the past tense because these future events "are as good as
> done" (p. 801).  Could someone give me a few examples of this Hebrew
> "prophetic past" in other passages besides Isaiah 9?
>
>             I know we have had extended discussions here about Hebrew tenses
> and my intention here is not to open up that whole can of worms once again.
> So perhaps I should rephrase the question like this: Could someone on this
> list who believes there is such a thing as a "prophetic past" tense in
> Hebrew please provide me with an example or two of this phenomenon in the
> Hebrew Bible?
>   

HH: It is a very common use of the perfect in Hebrew and receives a good 
explanation in standard biblical-Hebrew grammars. In Waltke and 
O'Connor, _Biblical Hebrew Syntax, it is mentioned in sections 29.5 and 
30.5.1e. The passages they cite as examples are Numbers 24:17 and Isaiah 
8:23-9:1. In Gesenius-Kautszch-Cowley's Hebrew Grammar it is touched on 
in section 106n, with such examples as Isa 5:13; 9:1ff.; 10:28; 11:9 
(after KY), 19:7; Job 5:20; 2 Chron 20:37.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard

Yours,
Harold Holmyard
>  
>
> Gary Hedrick
>
> San Antonio, Texas USA
>
> garyh AT cjfm.org 
>
>  
>
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