Biblical Hebrew Forum

[davidfentonism AT aim.com]

 I need to understand something of much importance and I feel this is the 
ideal forum for hashing it out. Aside from the conception in the NT texts 
(although it is therefrom that the question arose anyway), I need 
clarification of the b-hebrew in TNKh wherein references to 'hell' (including 
any indirect references) express the idea of "forever" or any equivalent idea.
 
 Thus far, I have been informed that Semitic idioms for "forever" (i.e., 
without end or perpetual) and "eternal" (as in permanent or unchanging or 
irreversible) are the same, and that the references to hell as being forever 
are indicated by the latter. But, the term may also apply to Y--H's 
"unchanging" love as opposed to "eternal" love.
 
 Examples:
 ...........Jude 1:7 (Sodom & Gomorrah's example of the punishment of eternal 
fire or eish olam)
 ...........Malachi 3 and 4 (Judgment of the Moshiach)
 ...........Ex 15:18, Ps 45:18, 1 Chron 16:36, 29:10, Ps 9:6, 10:16, 21:5, 
45:7, 48:15, 52:10 (OLAM V'ED i.e., 'from this world to the next')
 ...........Psalm 104:35 (permanent destruction conveyed)
 ...........Ezekiel 28:19
 ...........I would welcome private replies relative to the many NT references
 
 Further, as my friend Yisrael said, does, "L'olmei 'olamim', or as it is 
said in Hebraized Aramaic, "L'olmei 'olmaya", also have the same basic 
meaning, (i.e., ba'olam hazeh ul'olam habah) since both this phrase and 
"L'olam v'ed," are often translated as "forever" in most English/European 
languages?
 
 Thanks very, very much for all your help on this.
 
 All the best,
 David Fenton, MEd., MA Linguistics, MBA
 davidfentonism AT aim.com
 NYC
  
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