Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryant J. Williams III" <bjwvmw AT com-pair.net>]

Dear Yitzhak,

I do not know; that is why I asked. Since the acrostic is a mnemonic device
the most likely reason is that the position is what is being emphasized not
the sound.

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, November 28, 2006 8:38 PM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Acrostic Psalms


> On 11/29/06, Bryant J. Williams III wrote:
> > Dear Peter, Yitzhak, et al,
> >
> > I wonder if the acrostic Psalms are early enough to indicate the
separation
> > or non-separation of sin and shin? It is apparent that most of the
Psalms
> > are Pre-exilic to Exilic (Post-exilic?) and that they may give some
> > indication of the debate on the alphabet. Besides inscriptions wouldn't
> > Hebrew poetry retain early grammar and syntactical features to help in
this
> > debate?
>
> An acrostic psalm like Psalm 119 interchanges the Shin and Sin in the 21st
> position.  However, why do you think that the acrostic would necessarily
> place together verses that begin with the same phonetical variants as
opposed
> to the same graphical letter?
>
> Yitzhak Sapir
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