Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Chris and Nel" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>]

Can someone please refer me to the place in Gesenius, or van de merwe where 
I can understand why the Hiphil imperfect 3rd masc sing for this verb is 
written/pronounced with TWO kafs instead of the expected ONE kaf? I see that 
in approximately 10 places this happens, I really can not find any 
information as to what is going on here. (For reference I originally read it 
in Psalm 121:6).  One of my grammar books treats it as a doubly weak peh nun 
verb, well that is absolutely ridiculous judging by its conjugation in the 
following passages: Deut 28:22,27,28,35 This is more of a lamed heh 
conjugation?.  In psalm 121:6, - Isaiah 10:24, Jer 40:15 - ????  What is 
this?

Thankyou

Chris.