Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Mitch Larramore <mitchlarramore AT yahoo.com>]

With reference to this quote:

Leupold observes that the occurrence of the verb `aman
in verse 6 as a perfect with waw is unusual, and not
the expected imperfect with waw consecutive. His
analysis, based on Koenig’s grammar, is that the
perfect probably indicates the permanence of Abraham’s
faith. He believed not just this once, but was
constant in his faith.

(end quote)

Could someone help me understand the difference, as
far as its temporal/chronological implications are
concerned, between the perfect and imperfect? I had
read where the 'aman referred to in Genesis 15:6 would
also include Abram's earlier faith (Gen. 12 onward).
Is this what the perfect more so implies than would
the imperfect. (If possible, could you integrate your
answer with reference to the LXX using the Aorist
tense here for 'believed.')

In Leupold's quote above, "He believed not just this
once".. does this mean Abram had believed earlier as
well, or does this look forward?

I have absolutely no Hebrew training, so please keep
that in mind if you choose to respond.

Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas

__________________________________________________
Do You Yahoo!?
Tired of spam?  Yahoo! Mail has the best spam protection around 
http://mail.yahoo.com