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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Leviticus 27:29 and human sacrifice ???

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  • From: "Vadim Cherny" <VadimCherny AT mail.ru>
  • To: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>, "Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Leviticus 27:29 and human sacrifice ???
  • Date: Wed, 19 Oct 2005 21:33:22 +0300

Lev27:28 - slavery
27:29: yaharam is passive, unlike in 27:28; sentenced.
If I'm correct, Milgrom wrote something among these lines, too.

Vadim Cherny

I have read and heard it repeatedly that the biggest moral
difference between Judaism and paganism is that Judaism forbade human sacrifice. With the unfortunate exception of YPTX's daughter, that characterization seems accurate.

In Leviticus 27:29 (look also at the verses around it) there seems to be a command that human sacrifice is to be practiced.

The question that may clear up this understanding is the definition of XRM.

I checked Reinier de Blois' online dictionary, but does it really fit this use?

I suspect that the lexeme XRM may have the idea of marking out, as in designating animals to be sacrificed such that they can no longer be considered owned by the designator, but also marked as in blemished physically, such that a hereditary priest may not serve in the temple (Leviticus 21:18) or blemished morally such that his death is an execution of the guilty, not a sacrifice.

What say ye?

Karl W. Randolph.

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