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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Genesis 37:15

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  • From: "Vadim Cherny" <VadimCherny AT mail.ru>
  • To: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Genesis 37:15
  • Date: Mon, 26 Sep 2005 19:23:14 +0300

I recall that "will" acquired its future tense auxiliary role in ME. Thus, at some point it shared functions of independent verb abd tense auxiliary. At that time, "What wilt thou?" is a close analogy to idiomaically employed future tense in Hebrew.

The verb "will" certainly had two different uses, one as a future auxiliary and one as an independent verb. Both uses are common in the King James Bible. But the two uses are clearly distinct, already by 1611, both in syntax (the future auxiliary has no "to" before the following verb, which is mandatory with the independent verb form)


but there is no "to" in "What wilt thou?"


The rule is that the future "will" must be followed by a main verb without "to". Where there is no verb, there is no "to". But in the future sense it is not possible to drop the main verb. If the main verb is indefinite, you can say "What will you do?" with a future meaning, but you cannot shorten this to "What will you?", which has a quite different meaning "What do you want?"

"What wilt thou" has neither "to," as common for "will" in the sense "want," nor a main verb, as common for "will" as future aux. Thus, the phrase seems to reflect an intermediate sense between "want" and future aux, a function resembling yiqtol mvksh.

Vadim Cherny




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