Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Ian Young <ian.young AT arts.usyd.edu.au>]

Hi,

In Zechariah 6:10 we have the infinitive absolute used as a command
LAQOAH.  Lipinski in VT 20, 1970, p.33 sees the form as problematic, and
seems eager to explain it as an imperative.

Can anyone tell me what is the problem with the form?  It seems
perfectly acceptable to me as an infinitive.  It is routinely cited as
an example of the infinitive in the studies I have seen.

-Ian Young
University of Sydney