Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Moshe Shulman <mshulman AT ix.netcom.com>]

At 09:08 AM 12/22/2004 -0600, you wrote:
> Dear Chris,
>
> > I cannot find any demonstrable instance in the Tanakh of zara( taking a
> > masculine noun or pronoun as its subject and meaning "to impregnate." Can
> > someone point me to attestations that I have overlooked?
> HH: What follows is not the Tanakh, and the grammar of the passage is 
> debated (the KJV thought that Sarah conceived seed), but the best 
> interpretation of Heb 11:11 follows the path of the NIV:


You cannot be seriously arguing from Greek usage to Hebrew meaning.