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  • From: "Kevin W. Woodruff" <cierpke AT prodigy.net>
  • To: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>, hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Cc:
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] what to me and to you?
  • Date: Sun, 5 Sep 2004 14:19:31 -0700 (PDT)

Clay:

I'm not sure that the phrase always has the
connotation of hostility, for Jesus uses it with his
mother in John 2:4.

Raymond Brown says in his commentary:

"In the OT, the Hebrew expression has two shades of
meaning (a) when one party is unjustly bothering
another, the injured party may say "What to me and to
you" i.e. What have I done to you that you should do
this to me? What subjectof discord is there between
us? (Judges 11:12; 2 Chronicles 35:21; 1 Kings 17:18)
(b) when someone is asked to get involved in a matter
which he feels is is no business of his, he may say to
the petitioner "What to me and to you?" i.e. That is
your business; how am I involved? (2 Kings 3:13; Hosea
14:8). thus there is always some refusal of an
inopportune involvement, and a divergence between the
views of the two person concerned; yet (a). implies
hostility while (b) implies simple disengagement. Both
shades of appear in NT usage (a) appears when the
demons reply to Jesus (Mark 1:24; 5:7); seemingly (b)
appears here.

Raymond Brown "The Gospel According to John I-XII, "
in The Anchor Bible. Vol 29. Garden City: New York,
1966. page 99.

Brown refers to J. P. Michaud's "Le signe de Cana dans
son contexte johannique," in Laval Theologique et
Philosophique 18 (1962) pages 247-253.

I hope this helps

Kevin
--- "C. Stirling Bartholomew"
<jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net> wrote:

> What to me and to you?
>
> The expression: mh-ly wlK :or: mh-ly wlkM is found
> in Judg. 11:12,
> 2Sam. 16:10, 2Sam. 19:23, 1Kings 17:18, 2Kings 3:13,
> 2Chr. 35:21.
>
> I am assuming this expression was a "street" idiom
> in the 2nd Temple period.
> If so, did the idiom carry a connotation of anger,
> hostility or irritation
> on the part of the speaker?
>
> I am responding to a note in J.A. Fitzmyer (AB, Luke
> 1-9) where he states
> that the Semitic idiom rendered in Luke 4:34 ti
> hemin kai soi carries a
> connotation of hostility.
>
> My question: Did the idiom have that connotation in
> the passages cited
> above? What about in the in the 2nd Temple period?
> Evidence?
>
> greetings,
> Clay Bartholomew
>
>
>
> _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
>


=====
Prof. Kevin W. Woodruff, M. Div., M. S. I. S.
Library Director/Reference Librarian, Professor of Bible and Greek
Tennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary, 1815 Union Ave.
Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404, United States of America
423/493-4252 (office) 423/493-4423 (home) 423/493-4497 (FAX)
Cierpke AT prodigy.net http://pages.prodigy.net/cierpke/woodruff.htm




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