Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<david.kimbrough AT charter.net>]

The author of Genesis 32 made a clear choice of words, kadeshah instead of 
zonah.  The author could have used the word zonah but did not, as was done 
just a few verses earlier.  The choice was made with a Hebrew speaking 
Isrealite audiance in mind.  The linguistic background of the Adullamites and 
the people to whom he was enquiring of is not the point.  The audiance and 
author understood the meaning of the Hebrew words kadeshah and zonah and 
understood the choice the author made.  What did that choice reflect?  Did 
reflect a different assessment of the social standing of a kadeshah vs. a 
zonah?  Did that assessment change by the time of that 2nd Kings was writen?

> 
> From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
> Date: 2004/07/14 Wed PM 04:56:19 GMT
> To: david.kimbrough AT charter.net
> CC: "Medina, Vincent" <VMedina AT cbcag.edu>,  b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Kadeshah & Judah & the Adullamite
> 
> On 14/07/2004 17:46, david.kimbrough AT charter.net wrote:
> 
> >You are right but why was the Adullamite looking for a kadeshah if Judah 
> >had not told him to look for one? If Judah thought she was a zonah, why 
> >tell the Adullamite to look for a kadeshah?
> >
> >  
> >
> Judah didn't tell the Adullamite to look for a qadesha, it was the 
> Adullamite who assumed what kind of zona she was and/or used the word 
> more familiar to the people he was speaking to. From the author's 
> perspective, Judah's sin was not idolatry but simple immorality. Anyway 
> he "slept" with Tamar by the roadside and not in a temple setting, 
> although he probably thought that she was actually a temple prostitute.
> 
> 
> -- 
> Peter Kirk
> peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/
> 
> 

David Kimbrough
San Gabriel