Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 26/06/2004 12:40, tmcos AT rogers.com wrote:

> Hello,it seems this question was already answered by a list member. I agree 
> with you that we have here a mater waw in the Hebrew spelling of Judah. It is 
> indeed the same with DWD/DWYD. I believe that the maters were developed later 
> in biblical Hebrew? Since biblical Hebrew was originally composed of 
> consonants (I am including paleo-Hebrew at this point which was still 
> pictographic)it appears that the need to employ consonants as vowels 
> developed later. Is this usually the consensus of scholarship? Is there any 
> examples of the mater waw used in DWD or YHDH cited in the qere-ketib?
>
> Tony
>  

Maters would not usually be cited in the qere-ketiv, except when the 
ketiv mater does not fit the qere pronunciation. As Yehuda or David is 
pronounced the same whether or not there is a mater vav or yod, the 
pointing is made to fit either the presence or absence of the mater so 
there is no need for a separate qere form.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/