Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "George F. Somsel" <gfsomsel AT juno.com>
To: <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
Cc: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Monday, June 14, 2004 11:26 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] What means, "beyn mayim lamayim"?


> On Tue, 15 Jun 2004 00:01:30 +0200 "Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
> writes:
> > > > > > In Genesis, 1:6, it says that "there was divided" "among/
> > > > between
> > > > > > waters
> > > > > > to/for the waters (vayihiy or viyih mav'diyl, beyn mayi'm
> > > > > > lamayi'ym.)
> > > > > >
> > > > > > How does this translate?
> > > >
> > > > Folks: might the word "mavdil" not be a noun, "divider" - "and 
> > the
> > > > was (or
> > > > 'came to be') a DIVIDER between water and water"?
> > > >
> > > > Yigal
> > > >
> > > _____________
> > >
> > > Why not?  Isn't a participle by definition a verbal adjective and 
> > can be
> > > used as a noun?
> > >
> > > gfsomsel
> > >
> > Yes, but I was thinking of something more concrete - that God reated 
> > the
> > earth as a physical divider between the upper and lower waters.
> > 
> > Yigal
> > 
> ______________
> 
> So you're suggesting that Hf)fReC is itself the RfQiYa( ?
> 
No, the raqiya is the divider.