Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>]

Among the works on foreign words in the BH  there is one by the late M. 
Ellenbogen, and also, I believe, by Chaim Cohen.
 
Uri

Brandon M Cherry <pentewyn AT juno.com> wrote:
> From: Elaine Keown 
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Other languages in the Tanakh
> To: Brandon M Cherry 
, 
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Message-ID: <20031111132319.95036.qmail AT web80707.mail.yahoo.com>
> Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii
> 
> Elaine Keown
> central Texas
> 
> Hi,
> 
> If you look at the standard (but quite old)
> dictionary, Brown-Driver-Briggs, you will find
> Aramaic, Persian, Akkadian, Tamil or Malayalam, Greek,
> Egyptian and probably various others. 
> 
> I would guess that the Aramaic and Persian loanwords
> are the most numerous---Elaine

Most of these I'm aware of, but Tamil and Malayalam surprise me. How
would languages of southern India end up in the Hebrew Bible? Any idea
what the word or words in question are? I have BDB, but don't recall
discovering them yet. Oh, how I miss living near the seminary library!

Brandon Cherry, M.Div.
Waco, TX

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Subject: [b-hebrew] Re: deriving stems (was:  
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>
>Message: 6
>Date: Wed, 12 Nov 2003 05:41:57 -0500
>From: "Trevor Peterson" <06peterson AT cua.edu>
>Subject: RE: [b-hebrew] Hithpael and stative verb
>To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
>Message-ID: <000b01c3a909$997a8850$179cfea9@SPEDRSON>
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>
>(...)


>The danger I'm trying to avoid here is that we would conceive of the
>so-called derived stems (everything except G/Qal) as inflectional forms
>of the basic verb for the same root, similar to the difference between a
>perfect and an imperfect conjugational form. A native speaker would not
>generate binyanim in the same way that, for instance, a singular form is
>chosen to fit a given context rather than a plural. I like to think of a
>morphological continuum, where on one end we have purely inflectional
>morphology (formal distinctions between things like person and number)
>and on the other hand we have purely derivational morphology (noun
>patterns might be a good example). The binyanim I would be inclined to
>place near the latter end. There is some regularity in the connections
>between form and meaning, but nothing close to what we get in real
>inflection. So, an answer to this question should come more from
>lexicography than from grammar.
>
>(...)

Speaking as a native speaker of (Modern) Hebrew, this is not actually 
true.  Native speakers of Hebrew -- and I assume other Semitic languages -- 
regularly invent inflections of verb roots by stems to convey new meanings 
and nuances.  So do children who grow up speaking Hebrew, as a natural 
stage in the learning of speech.    Such inventions are readily understood 
and sometimes enter the regular spoken language.

Best wishes

Naama Zahavi-Ely


>Trevor Peterson
>CUA/Semitics
>