Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Trevor Peterson" <06peterson AT cua.edu>]

I don't have the Hebrew text here with me, but according to BDB and
HALOT, Sir 42:3 uses it this way. That seems to be all the evidence they
cite. As far as I know, none of the cognates takes this meaning.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org 
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Karl Randolph
> Sent: Tuesday, October 14, 2003 9:13 PM
> To: Hebrew
> Subject: [b-hebrew] Proverbs 8:21 Y$
> 
> 
> To All:
> 
> Here is a question as to the definition of a word.
> 
> Proverbs 8:21 Y$ appears to be a noun. As far as I can tell, 
> this is the only use of this lexeme in Tanakh where it 
> appears to be a noun.
> 
> The dictionary I have here gives no clue as to its possible 
> meaning, is there any definition in other dictionaries? 
> Cognate languages?
> 
> I know the usual definition is “there is” and it is rather 
> common in Tanakh with this meaning, but in this verse the 
> context seems to call for a different definition.
> 
> Any thoughts?
> 
> Karl W. Randolph.
> -- 
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