Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

According to GKC 15l, "In many MSS as well as in Baer's editions of the 
text" postpositive and prepositive accents are repeated on the tone 
syllable, to mark the accent. But in BHS and the Snaith edition this 
happens regularly only with the postpositive pashta, and very 
occasionally with telisha qetanna and with tsinnor/zarqa, but never, at 
least in BHS with the prepositive accents. GKC gives only one example 
with a prepositive accent, a telisha gedola.

What I am wanting to discover is how a prepositive accent is positioned 
when it is repeated on the tone syllable. Is it positioned well over to 
the right, as is commonly the actual prepositive accent, or centred and 
perhaps to the left of a vowel, like most other accents? What happens 
when the tone syllable is the first syllable? Is the accent ever written 
twice on the same syllable? Or is this repetition of the accent so rare, 
with prepositive accents, that it can be ignored?

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/