Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Paul Zellmer" <pzellmer AT sc.rr.com>]

No need to apologize, Doris.  I personally think this explanation works even
under the strictly linguistic view of the text.  The critical interpretation
credits the author, the linguistic credits David himself, speaking at the
time.

Your previous post just didn't clarify your complete thoughts on the matter.

Paul Zellmer

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of
> Dgahler782 AT aol.com
> Sent: Saturday, August 30, 2003 1:27 PM
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [b-hebrew] Re:2Sam1:15:16, temporal sequence
>
>
> I apologize - I strayed from the strictly linguistic to  the
> critical  text
> interpretation where it is plausible that the AUTHOR wished to
> exonerate The
> King  from a serious transgression (murder)  and appended  verse
> 16. This then
> might explain the sequence, i.e. the King speaking (justifying
> himself) AFTER
> the deed was done.
> Doris
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