Biblical Hebrew Forum

[ben.crick AT argonet.co.uk (Ben and Jo Crick)]

On Wed 30 Jul 2003 (14:25:54), kwrandolph AT email.com wrote:
> Exodus 1:16 seems to use  stones  in a very colloquial way to refer to
> a body part, identical as we do in English. Do I read this correctly?
> Out of the 126 times  stones  is used in plural, this is the only such
> use.

 Karl,

 You must be referring to Leviticus 21:20
 ... 'oW M:RoWaX 'a$eK
 ... or hath his stones broken (KJV); ... or damaged testicles (NIV).

 'eBeN is a stone;  'e$eK is a testicle.  It seems to be a hapax in BHS.

 Do you really mean Exodus 1:16?

 Shalom
 Ben
-- 
 Revd Ben Crick BA CF, and Mrs Joanna (Goodwin) Crick
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