Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Dave Washburn <dwashbur AT nyx.net>]

I took a peek at Holladay's lexicon under the Hebrew term, SRYS, and it says 
"eunuch."  It does raise an interesting question: if that's what the term 
always means, why does this particular eunuch have a wife in the first place?

On Wednesday 09 July 2003 22:05, Karl Randolph wrote:
> The first thing I did was to look this verse up in Hebrew. There the term
> has the meaning of “courtier”.
>
> Not being an expert in Latin, I wonder if the meaning of “eunuchus” has
> changed, that originally it did not refer to physical mutilation as it
> later did?
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Bearpecs AT aol.com
>
> > Friends,
> > I am forwarding from another email list, with permission, <snip> The
> > piece I hope to get some insights about is Potiphar's title (or is it
> > just a description?) and translation thereof. Thanks
>
> <snip>
>
> > > However, when I first read about Yosef's enslavement in Egypt and about
> > > Potiphar in the Vulgate, it has this to say:
> > >
> > > igitur Ioseph ductus est in Aegyptum emitque eum Putiphar eunuchus
> > > Pharaonis princeps exercitus vir aegyptius.

-- 
Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
"God does a lot of things in the Psalms
that He can't get away with in systematic theology."