b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
List archive
- From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
- To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Did they turn red?
- Date: Tue, 03 Jun 2003 17:42:24 -0500
Dear Yigal:
Thanks for your reply.
No, I dont think I am grasping at straws, trying to preserve my reading,
rather I want to see the evidence pro and con. After all, the reason I ask is
to be shot down if I am wrong. But I want good, solid reasons that I
understand.
I am cautious about late Hebrew definitions, wondering if they are the result
of theological disputes or Aramaic influences. But I still want to hear them.
For example, GZR in Hebrew meant to sever, but the last use of GZR in
Tenakh was in Esther, where the writer used the Aramaic term to decree in
the Hebrew text instead of the Hebrew word XQQ.
Concerning NDN, both German (Scheibe) and Latin (vagina) have one word that
means both a sheath for a sword and a womans vagina. These are two
Indo-European languages. In Hebrew, it appears to have the same two meanings.
Within the context, the verse appears to make more sense as vagina unless
it is used as a euphemism implying the same. What evidence is there in Hebrew
other than late Hebrew influenced by Aramaic or red faces to read it other
than as I have?
As for NDH, I found your response unconvincing. However, were here to
discuss, not arguethank you for responding.
Thanks again.
Karl W. Randolph.
> At 01:42 AM 6/3/2003 -0500, Karl Randolph wrote:
> >Dear Yigal:
> >
> >How late is later Hebrew?
> >
> In the Mishnah, but I don't have the refference right now. The Medieval and
> modern form (taken from the Aramaic) is "Nedunia".
>
>
> >The only other use of nedan in Tenakh is in 1 Chronicles 21:27, where it
> means sheath (vagina in Latin).
>
> But having no sexual connotation - once again, just a sheath for a sword. I
> don't know if the two are connected.
>
> >
> >As for nedah, does it not come from the root meaning to eject, expel?
> >
>
> No. That's Niddah, a different word. And even that simply means "cast
> aside", and refers to a woman's STATE during menstruation, not to the
> actual menstrual fluid. It is NEVER used for semen.
>
> >Thus it appears so me that the red faces as per my original posting led to
> a change in the meaning of the Hebrew words.
> >
>
> As I said, I think that this time you're chasing shadows.
>
>
> Yigal
>
> >Yours, Karl W. Randolph.
> >
--
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-
Re: [b-hebrew] Did they turn red?,
Yigal Levin, 06/02/2003
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Did they turn red?,
Karl Randolph, 06/03/2003
- Re: [b-hebrew] Did they turn red?, Yigal Levin, 06/03/2003
- Re: [b-hebrew] Did they turn red?, Karl Randolph, 06/03/2003
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