Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Shai Heijmans" <shaih AT post.tau.ac.il>]

Bryan,

You wrote:

> Presuming Jesus' word in Mark 7:34 to be
> Aramaic or Hebrew, how would you
> read EPHPHATHA, which Mark transliterates
> in Greek, EFFAQA, and interprets, hO ESTIN
> DIANOIXQHTI.

hippatax = 2m.s. imperative of nif'al PT"X = be opened!

You might want to look at:
F. Horton, "Nochmals ephphatha in Mk 7:34", Zeitschrift fur die
Neutestamentliche Wissenschaft und die Kunde der Alteren Kirche 77 (1986)
pp. 101-108
I. Rabinowitz, "ephphatha Mark 7:34 : certainly Hebrew, not Aramaic", JSS 16
(1971), p. 151-156
M. Black "Ephphatha (Mk 7:34)", Melanges bibliques en hommage au R P Beda
Rigaux, Gembloux, Belgium : Duculot, 1970, p 57-62.

> I am wondering if a direct translation of EPHPHATHA
> might be "may I persuade" or "may I persuade you."

If by "may I persuade" you mean "afatte" (1c.s. pi'el future), you may have
problems explaining the first and last vowel, and the ungeminated "t" in the
greek transliteration.

Regards,

Shai Heijmans








>
> Thanks for your help.
>
> Shalom,
> Bryan
>
>
> B. M. Rocine
> Living Word Church
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