Biblical Hebrew Forum

[ben.crick AT argonet.co.uk (Ben and Jo Crick)]

On Sat 25 Jan 2003 (23:17:26 +0100), watts-westmaas AT zonnet.nl wrote:
> I had always read 'LO' (lamed-vav) after a verb (especially one that
> intensifies) as meaning 'HIS' or 'HIM' or 'TO HIM' and in this verse
> 'corruption is his' and to follow 'NOT his children's' which
> theologically makes no sense.  In deut 9:12 you read literally:
> 'corrupted are your people' (they became corrupted) I know I'm making a
> bit of a mess here but I often become a little confused by the lack of
> consistency in biblical hebrew - THAT or my complete lack of understanding.
> 
> Once again needing some clarification on this whole sentence, that is
> of course if you still retain patience for a novice.

 The key to verse 5 is in the word order. The verb is fronted for emphasis;
 the subject of the verb,  DoWR `iQQe$ uWP:TaL:ToL a perverse and twisted
 generation, comes last, in apposition to MuWMaM, their moral stain.

 So translate "A perverse and twisted generation, not my people - their
 moral stain - has acted corruptly towards Him." Compare BaNiYM Ma$:XiYTiYM
 in Isaiah 1:4.  Mu'uWM occurs in this sense of moral stain in Proverbs 9:7
 and in Job 11:1 and 31:7.

 LoW, to Him, means to The Rock HaCCuWR (verse 4), the just and righteous 
God. 
 (C=tsadhe).

 HTH

 Ben
-- 
 Revd Ben Crick BA CF, and Mrs Joanna (Goodwin) Crick
 <ben.crick AT argonet.co.uk>
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