Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Translation Officer - Bible Society of South Africa" <translate AT biblesociety.co.za>]

Dear all

The word <<qohelet>> seems to be morphologically feminine, but semantically
(<<ben David melex birushalayim>>, 1:1) and syntactically (<<amar qohelet>>,
1:2; <<amar haqqohelet>>, 12:8; <<haya qohelet xaxam>>, 12:9; <<biqqesh
qohelet>>, 12:10) masculine.  Is there any reason for this specific
morphological form?

And why the feminine form of the verb in 7:27 -- <<amerah qohelet>>?  As far
as I can make out, the textual evidence seems to support this reading,
rather than <<amar qohelet>>, which one would have expected.

I know that this isn't of earth-shattering importance, but I would be
interested to know what the great minds have to say.

Regards
Manie van den Heever