Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Polycarp66 AT aol.com]

In a message dated 1/3/2003 5:08:43 AM Eastern Standard Time, watts-westmaas AT zonnet.nl writes:

> Please could someone tell me the historical and/or grammatical reasons why
> the word (haya) 'to be' is written differently in the following:
>
> Exodus 3:12 'I will be with you' - in the future - this is self
> explanatory
> Exodus4:15 'I will be with you' - also self explanatory
>
> BUT, in Exodus 6:7 'I will be to you God' - In the Past? (hayiti)
> and then twice in Hosea 13:14 'I will be thy plagues, I will be thy
> destruction' the final letter 'heh' is dropped? from the future tense, and
> subsequently a different pronounciation.


You had me a bit puzzled regarding your citation of Hos 13.14 (twice).  HfYfH does not appear in this passage.  What you have done is to confuse it with ):eHiY [which also has the forms )"Y and )"Y."H] meaning "where" with the verb HfYfH.  In Ex 3.12 and 4.15 you have the "imperfect" form whereas Ex 6.7 the form is "perfect".


gfsomsel