Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Trevor & Julie Peterson" <06peterson AT cua.edu>]

Title: Re: [b-hebrew] Re: YERUSHALEM

I'm not saying I have an explanation for the form--only questioning whether we can reasonably call it a dual ending. As for the absence of the yod, I'd say we probably are dealing with a difference between ketiv and qere. My first thought on where the different readings arise is that the ketiv shows a contracted (unaccented?) diphthong and the qere shows an uncontracted, accented form. Since we do find it written as yerushalem elsewhere, I think there's good reason to suppose that this was the form represented by the ketiv. But again, my point was not that I think I have a better explanation than anyone else for how the form arose--I'm simply asking whether it makes any sense to call the ending dual, simply because it has the same surface shape.

 

Trevor Peterson

CUA/Semitics

-----Original Message-----
From: Raymond de Hoop [mailto:rdehoop AT keyaccess.nl]
Sent: Mon, December 30, 2002 8:25 AM
To: Trevor & Julie Peterson; Biblical Hebrew
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Re: YERUSHALEM

At 30-12-2002 00:41 Trevor & Julie Peterson <06peterson AT cua.edu> wrote:

The Hebrew dual ending comes from -aym-; this diphthong was always lost in
BH, either contracted to long e or extended to ayi, with the stress on a.
Yes, the dual is one common place where this diphthong would have occurred,
but it is by no means the only. If there's any reliability to the notion
that m is part of the stem, then it seems to me that this being a dual
ending is an unacceptable option.

Shalom Trevor,

I would not dare to say I 've the solution to these questions. But aren't you suggesting that there is a diphtong ayi, where did they leave the "yod" in the consonantal YRW$LM, and did it belong to the stem? I do agree with you that the "mem" is part of the stem, but how did the Masoretes arive at the dual pronunciation "ayim"?

Kol tuv,
Raymond

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Dr Raymond de Hoop    
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University of Groningen
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