Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Chosefu Chemorion" <chosefu_chemorion AT wycliffe.org>]

     This is my first time to say something in this important forum.I would 
     like to thank Dave for touching on a a problem that I am currently 
     wrestling with as I try to translate 2 Samuel 24:1 into Sabaot 
     language.
     I agree that "the anger of the Lord" is the subject of the verb in the 
     first part of the verse, and that it makes sense to assume that "the 
     anger of the Lord" is still the subject of the verb in the second part 
     of the verse. In my opinion, Howard is right in rendering part of this 
     verse as "it incited David" instead of "He incited David". Of course 
     in Hebrew there is no way of distinguishing between "it" for masculine 
     and "He". 
     
     However, going by what Howard has done in his translation, one would 
     imagine that "the anger of the Lord" is a separate person from the 
     Lord in this context.In Sabaot language, it is hard to translate "the 
     anger of the Lord" without identifying this anger with the Lord 
     himself being angry. Therefore the Sabaot rendering of "the anger of 
     the Lord" would be "God was angry at..."
     
     In view of what Howard has done, can we then say that "the anger of 
     the Lord" in 2 Samuel 24:1 is an idiomatic expression which is 
     equivalent to "an accuser" in 1 Chronicles 21:1? What would "anger of 
     the Lord" mean in plain and natural modern English? Please help me.


______________________________ Reply Separator 
_________________________________
Subject: [b-hebrew] an adversary
Author:  <dstabno AT lifeway.com> at Internet
Date:    10/30/02 11:16 AM


In An Introduction to the OT Historical Books (pp. 245-248) David Howard, 
Jr. argues for the following translation of 2 Sam 24:1 and 1 Chron 21:1 --
     
Again the anger of the Lord burned
against Israel
and it incited David
against them, saying
"Go and take a census of Israel and Judah."
     
An adversary rose up
against Israel
and incited David
to take a census of Israel.
     
I am inclined to agree with him, because
     
1. $+N without the definite article is elsewhere always translated "an 
adversary" (1 Kg 11:14,23), whereas the proper noun always has the article 
(Job 1,2).
     
2. The subject of the first verb in 2 Sam 24:1 is "anger," and since there 
is no explicit change of subject, it is quite reasonable to assume it is 
also the subject of the second verb.  Howard connects the Lord's anger with 
His handing Israel over to their enemies, as in the book of Judges (2:14; 
3:8; 10:7; also 2 Kg 13:3).  The Chronicler assumes this connection and 
exegetes that it is the threat posed by these enemies, this adversary, that 
"told" David to take a military census.
     
NASB attributes the quote in 2 Sam 24:1 to David.  I find that 
theologically preferable, but grammatically unlikely -- it is generally the 
subject of the main verb who does the "saying."
     
Is Howard's translation grammatically sound?
     
Dave Stabnow
Bible Translation Editor
Broadman & Holman Publishers
Nashville, Tennessee
615-251-5851
david.stabnow AT lifeway.com
     
    Therefore, whether you eat or drink, or whatever you do,
do everything for God's glory.  (1 Cor 10:31, HCSB)
     
     
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