Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Thomas A Rohm <thomasmerry AT juno.com>]

Shalom!

My question has to do with the construct state, more specifically, the
translation of same as it involves the definite article.  All Hebrew
grammars that I have read state that a noun in the construct state never
takes the article, and that its translation as definite or not is
dependent upon the absolute noun to which it is joined in relationship. 
If the absolute noun has the article, then the construct must be
translated as definite.  Conversely, if the absolute is indefinite, the
construct must also be definite.  This is basic Hebrew grammar. My
question is, does this basic rule always apply?  Are there exceptions? 
English translators seem to pay little heed to the basic rule, often
translating anarthrous construct relationships as being definite.

Thank you,

Thomas Rohm
Southern California Bible College & Seminary