Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <Yigal-Levin AT utc.edu>]

Hi Serge,

There is actually an article about this in the recent Vetus Testamentum:
S. Noah Lee, "The Use of the Definite Article in the Developement of Some
Biblical Toponyms", VT 52/3, pp. 334-349. You can see an abstract an
ordering information at:
http://matilde.catchword.com/vl=8225392/cl=49/nw=1/rpsv/cw/brill/00424935/v5
2n3/s4/p334

Yigal

At 05:17 PM 9/18/2002 +0400, S. L. wrote:
>     Dear list, does anybody have ideas/information on the use of article
>with GN’s in  the OT? Do we understand the rules or details of this
>use apart from the obvious  (and correct?) suggestion that GN’s whose
>etymology was vividly felt by  the native speakers (hayyarden, ha:ra:ma:,
>etc.) were supplied with the article  more easily than those whose
>relationship to common nouns was no longer  transparent to the
>Sprachgefuel? Serge Lyosov ---
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Dr. Yigal Levin
Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
615 McCallie Avenue
Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
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