Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Fred Putnam" <fputnam AT biblical.edu>]

----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Kirk" <Peter_Kirk AT sil.org>
Date: Mon, 27 May 2002 19:59:53 +0100
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: RE: mevaseret in Isaiah (was company or women)


> One translation tradition (e.g. KJV) understands "mevasseret Zion" in
> Isaiah 40:9 as adjective and noun: "O Zion, herald of good tidings"
> (NRSV). This would explain the feminine: Zion is feminine.

If it this is the case then it would be "Zion mevasseret" and not the
other way round. The only way that I can think of where the noun follows
the adjective in Hebrew is if it is in the middle of the sentence. For
example: " Mevasseret, Zion, be-daver tov"

Regards,

Dave
-- 

Dave, I think that Peter is actually intereting "mevasseret Zion" as an 
appositive (which 
is much more common), rather than adjective-noun.

Best wishes,
Fred

Frederic Clarke Putnam, Ph.D.
"Dominus illuminatio mea."

Professor of Old Testament
Biblical Theological Seminary
fputnam AT biblical.edu
215-368-5000x150 (office & voice-mail)