Biblical Hebrew Forum

[GOLDMAN Amir Patrick <amirpatrick.goldman AT unifr.ch>]

Dear Martin,
My question was about the interpretation of Gen 1:26 as a volitional in
order to explain the plural as referring to a singular... as your first
message suggested this plural is for One person and having the nuance of a
volotiional form. Now the examples you present here under are cases of a
singular person speaking to and for a plural, which is a quite different
context. So I remain with the difficulty of interpreting the plural of Gen
1:26 as related only to God as One Person.
Sincerely,
Yohanan Goldman

> ----------
> 
> On 9/5/02 12:27 am, Yohanan Goldman at Amirpatrick.Goldman AT unifr.ch wrote:
> 
> > Is this plural "of exhortation" as Koenig coined it, attested
> > elsewhere in Biblical Hebrew ?
> 
> There are certainly similar constructions elsewhere, where a singular form
> of )MR is followed by a plural verb (as to whether the second verb has
> volitional force is not always morphologically apparent and can only be
> determined by context). Some examples: Gen 33:12; 37:21; Ex 10:9; Judg
> 13:15; 2Chr 14:7.
> 
> There are, of course, many more instances of a singular subject speaking
> on
> behalf of a group.
> 
> Regards,
> 
> Martin.
> 
> -- 
> Martin A. Shields
> 
>