Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>]

Then what's the other he (H) doing?

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics

>===== Original Message From "Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu> =====
>IT's probably Yahu, as in Eliyahu,
>Yermiyahu, Netanyahu. Or Yehu, as in
>Yehu (=Jehu). At Elephantine it's spelled
>YHW, which is easily pronounced Yahu.
>Now it could be Yaho, as Yahonatan. But
>I vote for Yahu.
>Liz
>
>> -----Original Message-----
>> From: Shoshanna Walker [mailto:rosewalk AT concentric.net]
>> Sent: Tue, January 22, 2002 11:42 AM
>> To: Biblical Hebrew
>> Subject: Re: Curious abut "G-d"
>>
>>
>>
>> Please keep in mind that no one knows how to pronounce that name,
>> and no one
>> was allowed to pronounce that name except for one person, in one
>> place, once
>> a year.
>>
>> Shoshanna
>>
>>
>>
>> > I agree with Ian 100%.
>> > Thanks Ian.
>> > It should be noted in addition that Blenkinsopp
>> > in his new Isaiah commentary spells the tetragrammaton
>> > YHVH only to be consistent with modern Hebrew usage.
>> > Jews from Arab countries pronounce it as waw, presumably
>> > supporting the notion of German influence for the vav.
>> > Liz
>> >
>> > > -----Original Message-----
>> > > From: Ian Hutchesson [mailto:mc2499 AT mclink.it]
>> > > Sent: Tue, January 22, 2002 10:47 AM
>> > > To: Biblical Hebrew
>> > > Subject: Re: Curious abut "G-d"
>> > >
>> > >
>> > > >Wouldn't the letters of the Tetragrammaton be YHVH, not
>> YHWH? The third
>> > > >letter is for 'vav' if I'm not mistaken, right?
>> > > >
>> > > >
>> > > >
>> > > >Right - vav
>> > >
>> > > Sorry, there's no reason to believe that this is the case. One cannot
>> use
>> > > the mores of modern Hebrew to say how things were pronounced
>> in ancient
>> > > times. vav as an ancient rendering of the sound makes little
>> sense when
>> > > one considers the ancient use of waw as a vowel /u/, especially
>> > > in the DSS.
>> > > This strongly indicates a bilabial liquid consonant related to
>> > > the /u/, ie
>> > > /w/, for when you make a /w/ the mouth is in the right state also to
>> make
>> > > the vowel sound /u/. As a /v/ is a (labio-dental) fricative, it uses a
>> > > different mechanism to provide sound and puts the mouth in no state
>> > > reminiscent of a /u/. Perhaps one could supply a *phonological*
>> > > connection
>> > > between waw and its vocalic use some other way, but I haven't
>> > > seen it done
>> > > and can't imagine one.
>> > >
>> > > We do have a strong analogy to the w/u relationship, when yod is
>> > > used as a
>> > > vowel yielding /i/, for when you make a /y/ the mouth is in the
>> > > right state
>> > > also to make an /i/.
>> > >
>> > > waw as vav seems unjustified to me, so I'd say "wrong".
>> > >
>> > > Didn't we get vav from waw after the German sound shift /w/ -> /v/?
>> > >
>> > >
>> > > Ian
>> > >
>> > >
>> > >
>> > > ---
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>>
>>
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